A 66-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of frequent, watery, nonbloody diarrhea. She reports 5 to 7 loose bowel movements per day, sometimes awakening her at night. She has a medical history of osteoarthritis and depression, for which she takes celecoxib and sertraline. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. Laboratory tests, including a complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, and thyroid-stimulating hormone, are normal. Stool studies are negative for ova and parasites, and a stool culture yields normal flora. A colonoscopy is performed, which reveals a structurally intact, normal-appearing mucosal surface from the rectum to the cecum. Random colonic biopsies are obtained. Histologic examination demonstrates a thickened, subepithelial, eosinophilic, acellular band measuring 20 micrometers in depth. The surface epithelium is intact but infiltrated by an increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes. The crypt architecture is completely normal, with no evidence of cryptitis or crypt abscesses. Based on the clinical presentation and histopathologic findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- ALymphocytic colitis
- BCrohn disease
- Collagenous colitisAnswer
- DIntestinal amyloidosis
- EEosinophilic gastroenteritis