A -year-old woman, who is weeks pregnant, is evaluated in the emergency department for a -hour history of right-sided flank pain, fever, and severe nausea with vomiting. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Physical examination reveals marked right-sided costovertebral angle tenderness. She is currently unable to tolerate any oral intake. Laboratory evaluation shows a leukocyte count of with a left shift. Urinalysis is positive for leukocyte esterase, nitrites, and white blood cells per high-power field. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention?
- Intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BIntravenous ciprofloxacin
- CIntravenous ampicillin
- DIntravenous doxycycline
- EOral nitrofurantoin
Answer
The most appropriate initial therapy is intravenous ceftriaxone.
The correct intervention is intravenous ceftriaxone. This patient presents with acute pyelonephritis, complicated by pregnancy and intractable vomiting. She requires inpatient admission and intravenous antibiotics. Third-generation cephalosporins (such as ceftriaxone or cefotaxime) or a combination of ampicillin and gentamicin are the standard of care for empiric therapy. Ceftriaxone effectively targets the most common causative organism, Escherichia coli, achieves excellent concentrations in the renal parenchyma, and is categorized as safe during pregnancy.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Empiric treatment for acute pyelonephritis in a pregnant patient requires an intravenous antibiotic (e.g., ceftriaxone) that achieves adequate renal tissue concentrations, covers typical Gram-negative uropathogens, and avoids fetal teratogenicity (avoiding fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines).