A male patient, aged years, returns to the primary care clinic for a follow-up evaluation. He has a history of type diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. Two weeks ago, his blood pressure was mmHg. At that time, laboratory studies demonstrated a serum creatinine of mg/dL, a serum potassium of mEq/L, and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of mg/g. To address his hypertension and microalbuminuria, ramipril was initiated. Today, the patient reports feeling well with no lightheadedness, shortness of breath, or peripheral edema. His blood pressure is now mmHg, and his heart rate is /min. Repeat laboratory studies obtained this morning show a serum sodium of mEq/L, a serum potassium of mEq/L, a blood urea nitrogen of mg/dL, and a serum creatinine of mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Continue ramipril at the current doseAnswer
- BDiscontinue ramipril and initiate amlodipine
- CAdd spironolactone to the current regimen
- DOrder bilateral renal artery duplex ultrasonography
- ERefer the patient for a percutaneous renal biopsy