A 34-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a two-day history of progressive left leg swelling and pain. She has a known medical history of an ischemic stroke at age 28 and three spontaneous consecutive first-trimester abortions, for which she was extensively evaluated. Outpatient serologic testing at that time confirmed high titers of anti-cardiolipin IgG, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein I IgG, and a repeatedly positive lupus anticoagulant. Her only current medication is low-dose aspirin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals an erythematous, edematous left lower extremity with tenderness to palpation along the popliteal fossa. Her leg is warm, and distal pulses are palpable. Venous duplex ultrasonography confirms an occlusive thrombus in the left popliteal vein. Laboratory testing shows a normal complete blood count, normal serum creatinine, and a normal hepatic panel. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for managing this patient's acute thrombosis?
- Initiation of therapeutic enoxaparin with concurrent initiation of warfarinAnswer
- BInitiation of rivaroxaban monotherapy
- CInitiation of therapeutic enoxaparin followed by dabigatran in 5 days
- DAddition of clopidogrel to the current aspirin regimen
- EIntravenous tissue plasminogen activator followed by unfractionated heparin