A 42-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic with a 3-day history of fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin. Vital signs are temperature 38.4°C (101.1°F), blood pressure 125/80 mmHg, pulse 98/min, and respiratory rate 20/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Physical examination reveals crackles in the left lower lung base. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 11,500/mm³ with 75% neutrophils. A chest x-ray reveals a left lower lobe infiltrate. The patient reports a history of severe anaphylaxis to penicillin, characterized by hives and wheezing. He has not taken any antibiotics in the past 90 days. Which of the following is the most appropriate empiric pharmacologic intervention for this patient?
- Oral levofloxacinAnswer
- BOral amoxicillin-clavulanate and azithromycin
- COral azithromycin
- DOral ciprofloxacin
- EIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin