A 24-year-old pregnant woman presents to the obstetric clinic for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks of gestation. She feels well and has no active complaints. Physical examination shows normal vital signs, a gravid uterus appropriate for gestational age, and no mucosal lesions, chancre, or skin rashes. Prenatal screening laboratories show a reactive rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test with a titer of 1:64. Confirmatory testing with Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) is positive. The patient's electronic medical record indicates a history of severe anaphylaxis to amoxicillin during childhood, which was documented with an intensive care unit admission for airway compromise. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic management for this patient's infection?
- Admit for penicillin desensitization followed by intramuscular penicillin G benzathineAnswer
- BAdminister oral doxycycline for 14 days
- CAdminister intravenous ceftriaxone for 14 days
- DAdminister oral azithromycin as a single dose
- EAdminister oral erythromycin for 14 days