A -year-old man with a history of nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and type diabetes mellitus is evaluated in the clinic for a -week history of productive cough, low-grade fevers, night sweats, and a -kg (-lb) weight loss. His current medications include rivaroxaban, lisinopril, and metformin. Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , heart rate , and respiratory rate . Physical examination reveals bronchial breath sounds and crackles in the right upper lung field. A chest radiograph demonstrates a cavitary lesion in the apical segment of the right upper lobe. Sputum acid-fast bacilli smears are positive, and a nucleic acid amplification test confirms the presence of *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*. The physician plans to initiate a daily regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which of the following is the most appropriate management regarding this patient's anticoagulation?
- Discontinue rivaroxaban and initiate warfarinAnswer
- BDiscontinue rivaroxaban and initiate apixaban
- CDiscontinue rivaroxaban and initiate dabigatran
- DIncrease the dosage of rivaroxaban
- EDiscontinue rivaroxaban and initiate aspirin