A -year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up of newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation. Three weeks ago, he presented to the emergency department with palpitations and was found to be in paroxysmal non-valvular atrial fibrillation. An echocardiogram demonstrated a structurally normal heart with a left ventricular ejection fraction of . He spontaneously converted to normal sinus rhythm and is currently asymptomatic. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type diabetes mellitus, and a seizure disorder secondary to a remote traumatic brain injury. His medications include lisinopril, metformin, and phenytoin. He has been seizure-free for the past years on his current dose of phenytoin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Recent laboratory studies, including a basic metabolic panel and complete blood count, are unremarkable. Liver function tests reveal a mildly elevated total bilirubin of mg/dL (normal: - mg/dL) with normal transaminases and alkaline phosphatase. His CHA DS -VASc score is calculated to be . Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for stroke prevention in this patient?
- AInitiate apixaban therapy
- Initiate warfarin therapyAnswer
- CInitiate dabigatran therapy
- DInitiate rivaroxaban therapy and adjust the dosage to maintain an International Normalized Ratio (INR) between and
- EDelay antithrombotic therapy until the mild hyperbilirubinemia resolves