A -year-old premenopausal woman presents to the oncology clinic for a scheduled evaluation prior to her next infusion. She is currently undergoing treatment for early-stage, HER2-amplified, estrogen receptor-negative breast cancer. She successfully completed a course of adjuvant paclitaxel and is currently receiving maintenance intravenous trastuzumab every weeks.
During the clinical interview, the patient reports feeling well and denies shortness of breath, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, or peripheral swelling. She exercises moderately for minutes most days of the week without limitation. Vital signs include a blood pressure of mmHg and a heart rate of /min. Physical examination reveals clear lungs bilaterally, no jugular venous distention, and a regular heart rate with no S3 gallop.
As part of her routine surveillance, serial echocardiography has been performed with the following results:
| Timepoint | Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) |
|---|---|
| Pre-treatment (Baseline) | |
| Week | |
| Week (Current) |
Based on the patient's surveillance data, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Withhold trastuzumab and repeat echocardiography in weeksAnswer
- BDiscontinue trastuzumab permanently and transition to an alternative targeted agent
- CContinue trastuzumab at the current dose and initiate lisinopril therapy
- DReduce the trastuzumab dose by and repeat echocardiography at the next scheduled -week interval
- EContinue trastuzumab and order cardiac magnetic resonance imaging to evaluate for myocardial fibrosis