A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on the second day of admission for poor oral intake and lethargy. He has a history of non-small cell lung cancer with diffuse osseous metastases. For the past two months, his bone pain has been well-controlled on a regimen of extended-release morphine 90 mg twice daily with immediate-release morphine as needed. Over the past 24 hours, the patient has become increasingly confused and reports seeing unfamiliar people in his room. The nurse notes that he has developed sudden, brief, involuntary muscle jerks in his upper extremities. When the nurse gently touches his arm to check his blood pressure, the patient screams in agony, stating that the light touch is excruciating. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 108/68 mmHg, pulse 94/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine of 3.4 mg/dL, which is elevated from a baseline of 1.0 mg/dL one month ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Rotate the current analgesic regimen to intravenous fentanylAnswer
- BIncrease the dosage of the extended-release morphine
- CAdminister intravenous naloxone
- DObtain a non-contrast CT scan of the head
- ETransfer the patient to the intensive care unit for continuous electroencephalogram monitoring