A 28-year-old nulliparous woman at 28 weeks gestation presents to the obstetric clinic for a routine prenatal evaluation. Her pregnancy has been entirely uncomplicated to date, and she reports normal fetal movement. Her vital signs are within normal limits. She had a normal 1-hour 50-g oral glucose challenge test at her 26-week visit. Laboratory testing from her first trimester showed she is blood type A positive, non-immune to rubella, non-immune to varicella, and negative for HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B and C. She received an inactivated influenza vaccine at 12 weeks gestation. She has no significant past medical history and takes a daily prenatal vitamin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in preventive care for this patient today?
- AAdminister the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine
- BAdminister Rh(D) immune globulin
- Administer the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccineAnswer
- DObtain a rectovaginal swab for group B streptococcus culture
- EAdminister the 20-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV20)