A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to the sudden onset of severe, "tearing" chest pain that radiates to his back, between the shoulder blades. The pain began minutes ago while he was resting. He has a medical history of poorly controlled hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a -pack-year smoking history. On presentation, he appears in acute distress, anxious, and diaphoretic. Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure mm Hg in the right arm and mm Hg in the left arm, heart rate /min, and respiratory rate /min. Oxygen saturation is on room air. Cardiovascular examination reveals a regular tachycardia and a new, faint decrescendo diastolic murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. An electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia and voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy, but no acute ischemic changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?
- AObtain computed tomography angiography of the chest
- BAdminister intravenous sodium nitroprusside
- Administer intravenous esmololAnswer
- DObtain a bedside transesophageal echocardiogram
- EAdminister oral aspirin, sublingual nitroglycerin, and consult interventional cardiology