A 64-year-old woman is hospitalized for a massive unprovoked pulmonary embolism. She is initially managed with a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion. Six days after admission, routine laboratory monitoring reveals a platelet count of , a significant decline from her admission baseline of . Concurrently, she reports new-onset right calf pain, and Doppler ultrasonography confirms a new right lower extremity deep venous thrombosis.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is suspected. Heparin is immediately discontinued, and a continuous intravenous infusion of argatroban is started. A serotonin release assay subsequently returns positive, confirming the diagnosis of HIT.
Over the next 72 hours, the patient's platelet count steadily recovers to . The care team decides to transition her to oral warfarin for long-term anticoagulation. Warfarin is initiated at daily while the argatroban infusion is maintained.
Today is the fourth day of combined argatroban and warfarin therapy. The patient is hemodynamically stable without any signs of clinical bleeding. Morning laboratory studies reveal the following:
* Platelet count:
* Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): (target therapeutic range: -)
* Prothrombin time (PT):
* International Normalized Ratio (INR):
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the monitoring and treatment evaluation of this patient's anticoagulation?
- Continue argatroban and warfarin, and recheck the INR the following dayAnswer
- BDiscontinue argatroban, continue warfarin, and recheck the INR in 4 to 6 hours
- CDecrease the argatroban infusion rate to lower the aPTT, then reassess the INR
- DDiscontinue warfarin, continue argatroban, and administer oral vitamin K
- EDiscontinue argatroban, continue warfarin, and initiate therapeutic subcutaneous enoxaparin