A 52-year-old man visits the clinic due to sudden, severe pain and swelling in his right big toe that began overnight. He is unable to bear weight on the affected foot. His medical history is significant for a deceased-donor renal allograft performed three years ago for end-stage renal disease secondary to hypertensive nephrosclerosis. His current medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and low-dose prednisone. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely tender right first metatarsophalangeal joint. Joint aspiration is performed, and synovial fluid analysis reveals negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals under polarized light microscopy. His serum creatinine today is 1.6 mg/dL, which is unchanged from his baseline over the past year. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's acute joint condition?
- Intra-articular triamcinoloneAnswer
- BOral colchicine
- COral naproxen
- DOral allopurinol
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone and vancomycin