A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to three days of progressively worsening lower back pain and new-onset difficulty walking. He reports that the pain began abruptly after he attempted to lift a heavy piece of furniture. This morning, he developed perineal numbness and has been unable to urinate for the past hours despite feeling a strong urge. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and sick sinus syndrome managed with a permanent dual-chamber cardiac pacemaker (implanted years ago; documentation confirms the device is strictly non-MRI compatible). His temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals exquisite tenderness to palpation over the lower lumbar spine. Neurologic examination demonstrates strength in bilateral lower extremities, decreased sensation to pinprick in the perineal and perianal region (saddle anesthesia), and absent Achilles reflexes bilaterally. Digital rectal examination reveals significantly decreased anal sphincter tone. Bedside bladder ultrasonography shows a post-void residual volume of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnostic imaging?
- AMagnetic resonance imaging of the lumbar spine with and without intravenous contrast
- Computed tomography myelography of the lumbar spineAnswer
- CNon-contrast computed tomography of the lumbar spine
- DComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- ETransrectal ultrasonography of the prostate