A 61-year-old man is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a persistent ulcer on the plantar aspect of his left first metatarsophalangeal joint, which he first noticed six weeks ago. His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated by peripheral neuropathy, as well as stage 3 chronic kidney disease. He reports no fevers, chills, or systemic symptoms. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a ulcer with raised borders and a granulating, mildly exudative base. Surrounding erythema extends from the ulcer margin. Sensation to a 10-gram monofilament is absent in the bilateral distal lower extremities. During the examination, a sterile, blunt stainless-steel probe is introduced into the ulcer and advances seamlessly until a hard, gritty surface is encountered. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of . A plain radiograph of the left foot reveals soft tissue swelling but no radiopaque foreign bodies, subcutaneous gas, or distinct cortical destruction. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?
- Percutaneous or surgical bone biopsyAnswer
- BMagnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the left foot
- CSuperficial swab culture of the ulcer exudate
- DTechnetium-99m labeled leukocyte scintigraphy
- EMeasurement of serum procalcitonin concentration