A 72-year-old man is evaluated in the palliative care clinic for new-onset pain. He has a history of metastatic prostate cancer with diffuse osteoblastic bone metastases and symptomatic benign prostatic hyperplasia. He is currently maintained on an extended-release morphine regimen that adequately controls his baseline dull, aching bone pain. Over the past two weeks, he has developed severe, "shooting and burning" pain radiating down his right posterior thigh and calf. He rates this new pain as an 8 on a 10-point scale. Neurologic examination reveals decreased pinprick sensation over the lateral aspect of the right lower leg. His motor strength is 5/5 in all extremities. He has normal anal sphincter tone and reports no issues with bowel function or new urinary symptoms. He is alert, oriented, and demonstrates a clear understanding of his prognosis and treatment options.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiate therapy with oral gabapentinAnswer
- BInitiate therapy with oral amitriptyline
- COrder an emergent magnetic resonance imaging scan of the spine
- DArrange immediate hospital admission for a continuous intravenous ketamine infusion
- ERequest a psychiatric consultation to determine the patient's legal competence