A 28-year-old woman presents to the preoperative clinic for medical clearance prior to an elective septoplasty. During the clinical interview, she mentions having heavy menstrual periods that frequently require changing pads every 2 hours during the first three days of her cycle. She also recalls an incident at age 18 when a wisdom tooth extraction resulted in continuous oozing of blood for over 24 hours, requiring a return visit to the oral surgeon for suturing and packing. She has no history of spontaneous joint swelling or gastrointestinal bleeding. Her medical history is significant only for mild iron deficiency anemia, for which she takes an over-the-counter iron supplement. She takes no other medications and does not use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals no petechiae, ecchymoses, or hepatosplenomegaly. Preoperative laboratory testing shows:
Hemoglobin: 11.8 g/dL
Platelet count: 240,000/mm³
Prothrombin time (PT): 11 seconds (Reference: 11-15 seconds)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): 28 seconds (Reference: 25-40 seconds)
Based on the patient's medical history, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
- Measurement of von Willebrand factor antigen and ristocetin cofactor activityAnswer
- BMedical clearance to proceed with surgery without further hematologic testing
- CMeasurement of Factor VIII and Factor IX activity levels
- DPerformance of a plasma mixing study
- EEvaluation with light transmission platelet aggregometry