A 28-year-old woman is hospitalized for a severe flare of systemic lupus erythematosus, characterized by a malar rash, inflammatory polyarthritis, and new-onset proteinuria. Laboratory studies on admission reveal a serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL and an absolute lymphocyte count of 1,800/mm³. She is initiated on high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone therapy to manage the acute exacerbation. Five days later, her total leukocyte count remains stable, but her absolute lymphocyte count has decreased precipitously to 550/mm³. A peripheral blood smear shows normal red blood cell morphology, adequate platelets, and no abnormal lymphoid forms, schistocytes, or blasts. Which of the following best describes the fundamental cellular mechanism responsible for the rapid decline in this patient's lymphocyte count?
- DNA fragmentation by endonucleases with preservation of cell membrane integrityAnswer
- BEnzymatic digestion of cellular components accompanied by an acute inflammatory exudate
- CIntravascular fibrin polymerization and microthrombi formation leading to ischemic cell death
- DDepletion of intracellular ATP leading to failure of the sodium-potassium pump and cellular swelling
- EExcessive production of reactive oxygen species causing lipid peroxidation of the cell membrane