A 42-year-old woman is evaluated in the pulmonary clinic for a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath with exertion, a dry, hacking cough, and mild generalized fatigue. She also reports diffuse joint pains, particularly in her knees and wrists. She has no fever, chills, or night sweats. Medical history is notable for recurrent urinary tract infections, for which she takes prophylactic nitrofurantoin. Her surgical history includes an appendectomy at age 20. Social history reveals she smoked a half-pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years but quit 5 years ago. She currently lives with a pet parrot. Ten years ago, she relocated from the Ohio River Valley to her current city to work as a precision machinist at an aerospace manufacturing facility. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a few tender, violaceous nodules on her anterior shins. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. A recent chest radiograph demonstrated bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. A subsequent transbronchial lung biopsy revealed multiple well-formed, noncaseating granulomas with no evidence of acid-fast bacilli or fungal organisms. Based on this patient's comprehensive history and preliminary evaluation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step to establish the definitive etiology?
- Peripheral blood beryllium lymphocyte proliferation testAnswer
- BMeasurement of serum angiotensin-converting enzyme level
- CSerum avian precipitin panel
- DMediastinoscopy with surgical lymph node biopsy
- EFluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography (FDG-PET) scan of the chest