A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for a routine follow-up. He has a history of a mechanical aortic valve replacement performed 4 years ago. He is maintained on a stable daily dose of warfarin, and his international normalized ratio (INR) has consistently remained within the target therapeutic range of 2.5 to 3.5 for the past year. Two weeks ago, the patient was diagnosed with highly symptomatic paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and was started on amiodarone by his cardiologist. He reports no bleeding, bruising, dizziness, or palpitations today. His vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the monitoring and management of this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- AContinue the current medication regimen and check the international normalized ratio at the next routine 3-month visit
- Measure the prothrombin time/international normalized ratio and preemptively decrease the warfarin doseAnswer
- CDiscontinue warfarin and initiate a direct oral anticoagulant such as rivaroxaban
- DMonitor the activated partial thromboplastin time to guide necessary adjustments to the warfarin dose
- EOrder a non-contrast computed tomography scan of the head to screen for subclinical intracranial hemorrhage