A -year-old man visits his primary care provider due to intense pain and swelling in his right great toe that began abruptly overnight. He reports that the pain is so severe he cannot tolerate the weight of a bedsheet on his foot. The patient underwent a deceased-donor kidney transplantation years ago for end-stage renal disease secondary to hypertensive nephrosclerosis. His maintenance immunosuppressive regimen consists of tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone ( daily). His other medications include amlodipine and low-dose aspirin. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and heart rate of . Examination of the right lower extremity reveals marked erythema, edema, and exquisite tenderness localized to the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Recent laboratory testing demonstrates a serum creatinine of , which is unchanged from his baseline over the past year. Serum uric acid is . An arthrocentesis of the affected joint yields cloudy fluid with a leukocyte count of ( neutrophils). A Gram stain shows no organisms. Polarized light microscopy demonstrates numerous negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention for this patient's joint symptoms?
- AOral naproxen
- BIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- Intra-articular triamcinolone acetonideAnswer
- DOral colchicine
- EOral allopurinol