An established -year-old male patient presents to the office for ongoing management of resistant hypertension. He was initially diagnosed with elevated blood pressure four years ago. His current home and in-office readings average mmHg despite documented compliance with a maximum-dose three-drug regimen comprising amlodipine, olmesartan, and chlorthalidone. The patient reports feeling generally well without muscle weakness, palpitations, or episodic sweating.
Vital signs today show a blood pressure of mmHg and a heart rate of beats/minute. Physical examination is unremarkable, with no abdominal bruits.
Recent serum laboratory studies show a sodium level of mEq/L and a potassium level of mEq/L.
The physician suspects a secondary endocrine cause and correctly transitions the patient's antihypertensive regimen to verapamil, hydralazine, and doxazosin to prevent assay interference. After a -week washout period, biochemical screening reveals:
- Plasma aldosterone concentration (PAC): ng/dL (Reference: - ng/dL)
- Plasma renin activity (PRA): ng/mL/hr (Reference: - ng/mL/hr)
- PAC/PRA ratio:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?
- Intravenous isotonic saline infusionAnswer
- BComputed tomography scan of the adrenal glands
- CAdrenal venous sampling
- DOvernight low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
- EAddition of spironolactone to the medical regimen