A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for a routine health maintenance examination. He has a history of essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. His current medications include lisinopril, atorvastatin, and occasional acetaminophen. He smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years but quit at age 55. His vital signs are within normal limits. The physician recommends a one-time abdominal duplex ultrasound to screen for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. The patient immediately shakes his head, crosses his arms, and says, "I am absolutely not doing that. My older brother had a scan for his belly a few years ago. They found a tiny shadow that led to three painful biopsies, a major surgery, and he almost died from a hospital infection. It turned out he didn't even have cancer. I feel perfectly fine, and I am not opening Pandora's box when I have no symptoms." Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?
- AUnlike your brother's test, this ultrasound is a standard preventive screening recommended for all men over the age of 65, regardless of symptoms.
- BIf you are concerned about unnecessary biopsies, we could perform a screening computed tomography scan of the abdomen instead, which provides better detail.
- It sounds like your brother went through a terrifying ordeal. Can you tell me more about your specific concerns regarding this ultrasound?Answer
- DBecause you are legally competent, you have the right to decline; however, I must document that this refusal goes against medical advice.
- EI understand your hesitation. We can defer the ultrasound for now and reconsider it immediately if you develop any abdominal or back pain.