A 41-year-old woman is evaluated in the oncology clinic to discuss adjuvant endocrine therapy for breast cancer. She recently underwent a lumpectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy for a stage I, estrogen receptor-positive, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)-negative invasive ductal carcinoma. Radiation therapy was completed two weeks ago. Her medical history is significant for major depressive disorder, which has been well controlled on fluoxetine for the past four years. She also reports experiencing new-onset, disruptive hot flashes that disturb her sleep. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every days. Her body mass index is . Vital signs and physical examination are within normal limits. The oncologist plans to initiate tamoxifen. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic adjustment for this patient?
- AContinue fluoxetine and initiate tamoxifen
- BSwitch fluoxetine to bupropion and initiate tamoxifen
- CSwitch fluoxetine to paroxetine and initiate tamoxifen
- Switch fluoxetine to venlafaxine and initiate tamoxifenAnswer
- EMaintain fluoxetine and initiate anastrozole instead of tamoxifen