A 62-year-old female is evaluated in the inpatient dermatology consultation service for exquisitely painful, violaceous, and necrotic skin lesions on her bilateral thighs and lower abdomen that have rapidly progressed over the past two weeks. She has a history of end-stage renal disease secondary to diabetic nephropathy and receives hemodialysis three times weekly. She also has a history of permanent atrial fibrillation and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her current medications include calcium acetate, calcitriol, warfarin, and metoprolol succinate. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals retiform purpura with central areas of black eschar and surrounding indurated erythema on the proximal lower extremities and adiposity-rich areas of the abdomen. The lesions are extremely tender to palpation. Peripheral pulses are intact. Laboratory evaluation shows:
Serum calcium:
Serum phosphorus:
Intact parathyroid hormone (PTH):
International Normalized Ratio (INR):
A punch biopsy of the lesion margin demonstrates microvascular calcification, extensive intimal fibroplasia, and cutaneous ischemia without evidence of systemic vasculitis. Which of the following sets of pharmacologic interventions is most appropriate for the management of this patient's dermatologic condition?
- AInitiate intravenous pamidronate, substitute calcium acetate with aluminum hydroxide, and maintain current warfarin therapy
- BInitiate oral cinacalcet, maintain calcitriol therapy, and transition warfarin to subcutaneous enoxaparin
- Initiate intravenous sodium thiosulfate, substitute calcium acetate with sevelamer, and transition warfarin to apixabanAnswer
- DInitiate intravenous methylprednisolone, substitute calcium acetate with sevelamer, and transition warfarin to dabigatran
- EInitiate intravenous sodium thiosulfate, substitute calcium acetate with sevelamer, and maintain current warfarin therapy