A 65-year-old man is evaluated in the clinic following the completion of a 6-week course of intravenous cefazolin and oral rifampin for a methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) prosthetic joint infection of the right knee. The patient has a history of a mechanical bileaflet aortic valve replacement performed 5 years ago. Prior to the infection, his anticoagulation was well controlled with an international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.6 on a stable warfarin dose of 5 mg daily.
Two weeks after initiating the antibiotic regimen, his INR was noted to be subtherapeutic, and his warfarin dose was gradually titrated up. He has been taking warfarin 12 mg daily for the past 3 weeks.
Today, the patient reports feeling well with no joint pain, fevers, or signs of bleeding. His right knee exam is unremarkable. The antibiotics are permanently discontinued today. Laboratory studies show a current INR of 2.5.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the monitoring and management of this patient's anticoagulation?
- AImmediately return to the baseline warfarin dose of 5 mg daily and recheck the INR in 1 week.
- BDiscontinue warfarin and initiate apixaban to avoid unpredictable fluctuations in anticoagulation.
- Gradually taper the warfarin dose over the next 2 to 4 weeks with twice-weekly INR monitoring.Answer
- DOrder an immediate transesophageal echocardiogram to evaluate for valve thrombosis prior to adjusting medications.
- EHold warfarin and administer low-dose oral vitamin K to reset coagulation factors before resuming the baseline dose.