A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and heavy tobacco use collapses during a family gathering and is rapidly transported to the acute care bay. He is lethargic, moaning in pain, and complains of sudden, excruciating pain tearing through his abdomen and lower back. Initial assessment reveals a pale, diaphoretic patient with cool extremities and delayed capillary refill.
Vital signs:
- Temperature: 36.2°C (97.2°F)
- Heart rate: 132/min
- Blood pressure: 65/40 mmHg
- Respirations: 22/min
- Oxygen saturation: 94% on room air
Physical examination is notable for a distended abdomen with a prominent, pulsatile mass palpated just above the umbilicus. Bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates free intra-abdominal fluid.
Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following simultaneous initial management steps are most urgently indicated? (Select exactly two options)
- Establishment of two large-bore peripheral intravenous linesAnswer
- BImmediate transport for computed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- Activation of the massive transfusion protocol with uncrossmatched bloodAnswer
- DInitiation of a continuous norepinephrine infusion
- EAdministration of intravenous ketorolac for analgesia