A 62-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter due to severe shortness of breath and wheezing that began 24 hours ago. The patient has a history of mild intermittent asthma but has not required an albuterol inhaler in over a decade. Her past medical history is also notable for essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a newly diagnosed ocular condition characterized by elevated intraocular pressure, for which she saw an ophthalmologist three weeks ago. She is a lifelong nonsmoker. Her current oral medications include amlodipine and atorvastatin. When asked about other medications, she initially states she takes nothing else, but upon targeted questioning regarding her recent ophthalmology visit, she confirms she started a new twice-daily eye drop three weeks ago. Temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg, pulse is 52/min, and respirations are 24/min. Oxygen saturation is 91% on room air. Physical examination reveals diffuse bilateral wheezing with a prolonged expiratory phase. The skin is warm and dry, and the oral mucosa is moist. There is no excessive lacrimation, salivation, or abnormal bowel sounds. A detailed medical history reveals that the systemic absorption of her new eye medication is likely responsible for her current presentation. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of the most likely responsible medication?
- Antagonism of beta-adrenergic receptorsAnswer
- BActivation of prostaglandin F2-alpha receptors
- CInhibition of carbonic anhydrase
- DStimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors
- EActivation of muscarinic cholinergic receptors