A 54-year-old man is evaluated in the clinic for a new-onset tremor and diffuse headaches that began 5 days ago. He underwent a deceased-donor renal transplantation 8 months ago for end-stage renal disease secondary to hypertensive nephrosclerosis. His maintenance immunosuppressive regimen consists of tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and low-dose prednisone. Two weeks ago, he was diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation; at that time, his primary care physician initiated therapy with diltiazem and apixaban.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg and pulse is 78/min and irregularly irregular. A coarse resting tremor is observed in the bilateral upper extremities. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory studies show:
Serum sodium: 139 mEq/L
Serum potassium: 5.1 mEq/L
Serum chloride: 104 mEq/L
Serum bicarbonate: 22 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen: 48 mg/dL
Serum creatinine: 2.6 mg/dL (baseline 1.2 mg/dL)
Serum tacrolimus trough level: 24 ng/mL (target: 5-8 ng/mL)
Renal ultrasound reveals a normal-appearing allograft with no hydronephrosis and normal resistive indices.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- ADecrease the daily dose of mycophenolate mofetil
- BPerform a percutaneous renal allograft biopsy
- Discontinue diltiazem and initiate metoprololAnswer
- DAdd lisinopril to the patient's medication regimen
- EMeasure prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time