A 38-year-old man is evaluated in the preoperative clinic prior to a scheduled open reduction and internal fixation of a severely displaced tibial plateau fracture. The procedure is planned for 3 days from today. His medical history is notable for severe opioid use disorder, which has been in sustained remission for 4 years. He is maintained on a stable daily dose of sublingual buprenorphine-naloxone (16 mg / 4 mg). He has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no other medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. The patient expresses significant anxiety regarding postoperative pain control and fears that his current medication will interfere with his pain management. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic strategy regarding his opioid use disorder therapy in the perioperative period?
- Continue the current buprenorphine-naloxone dose through the day of surgery and utilize multimodal analgesiaAnswer
- BDiscontinue the medication 72 hours prior to surgery and bridge with an oral full mu-opioid agonist
- CTransition to sublingual buprenorphine monotherapy to prevent postoperative naloxone-induced hyperalgesia
- DDecrease the medication dose by half on the morning of surgery to free mu-receptors for full opioid agonists
- EWithhold the medication entirely on the day of surgery and resume once parenteral opioid requirements cease