A -year-old woman is evaluated in the ambulatory clinic due to a three-day history of high fever, severe fatigue, and a painful sore throat. Her medical history is notable for Crohn disease, which has been in clinical remission for the past four years on a stable daily dose of azathioprine. She also has a history of recurrent gout. Three weeks ago, her primary care physician initiated febuxostat to better control her serum uric acid levels. Today, her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals pale conjunctivae and several aphthous ulcers on the buccal mucosa. There is no active joint swelling, erythema, or focal source of infection identified on examination.
Laboratory studies reveal:
Leukocyte count: (Absolute neutrophil count: )
Hemoglobin:
Platelet count:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation and management of this patient?
- Admit to the hospital, discontinue azathioprine, and initiate empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibioticsAnswer
- BDiscontinue febuxostat, initiate oral colchicine, and discharge with instructions to repeat the complete blood count in 48 hours
- COrder a computed tomography scan of the neck and chest to identify the source of infection prior to administering antibiotics
- DSchedule an urgent bone marrow aspiration and biopsy to evaluate for a primary hematologic malignancy
- EObtain thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity levels and withhold azathioprine pending the results