An ambulatory appointment is scheduled for a 41-year-old male delivery driver to evaluate his blood pressure management. He was diagnosed with primary hypertension six months ago and was prescribed daily amlodipine. He also has a history of moderate persistent asthma, which is well controlled on a daily inhaled corticosteroid-formoterol inhaler.
During today's visit, his blood pressure is 158/98 mmHg and his heart rate is 76/min. When asked about his medication usage, the patient states, "I only take the blood pressure pill when my neck gets stiff or I feel a headache coming on. Otherwise, I feel completely normal, so I try to avoid putting unnecessary chemicals into my body."
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?
- Can you explain to me your understanding of what high blood pressure does to your body when you do not have symptoms?Answer
- BAre you experiencing any side effects from the amlodipine, such as ankle swelling, that make you want to avoid taking it?
- CI will document that you have the capacity to decline daily therapy, but you must realize you are risking a stroke.
- DLet us switch your medication to a nonselective beta-blocker, which might be better tolerated and easier for you to take.
- ESince you are here, we should also arrange a screening colonoscopy today to ensure we stay on top of your overall health.