During a routine health maintenance visit, a 48-year-old woman reports a two-year history of progressive joint pain and generalized fatigue. She casually mentions that she recently had to have her wedding band resized and was forced to purchase larger shoes. On review of systems, she notes persistent, excessive daily diaphoresis. Her blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg, and her heart rate is 76/min. Physical examination is notable for prominent supraorbital ridges, a widened jawline, and enlarged, doughy hands. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in laboratory evaluation?
- AMagnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary gland
- BMeasurement of a random serum growth hormone level
- Measurement of serum insulin-like growth factor-1Answer
- DOral glucose tolerance testing with growth hormone measurement
- EMeasurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone
Answer
Measurement of serum insulin-like growth factor-1
The patient's presentation of enlarged extremities, structural facial changes, hypertension, and diaphoresis is classic for acromegaly, a condition caused by a growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma. The initial step in the diagnostic workup is always the measurement of serum insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1). Because growth hormone is secreted in a pulsatile fashion and has a short half-life, random levels are unreliable. IGF-1, which is produced by the liver in response to growth hormone, has a long half-life and accurately reflects total integrated growth hormone secretion. If the IGF-1 level is elevated, the diagnosis is subsequently confirmed with an oral glucose tolerance test demonstrating a failure to suppress growth hormone.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Initial laboratory evaluation of suspected acromegaly requires measurement of serum insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1).