A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a recent transient ischemic attack (TIA) is evaluated via telehealth. He was recently diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and prescribed apixaban for stroke prophylaxis. During the visit, he reports he has not filled the prescription. He states, "I know I am at high risk for a stroke, and I know this drug prevents them. But my older brother was on a blood thinner, fell in his kitchen, and died from bleeding into his brain. I live alone, I have neuropathy in my feet, and I fall at least once a month. I've thought about it deeply, and I've decided that bleeding to death on the floor alone is a worse fate than a stroke. I am not taking it." The physician determines the patient is alert, fully oriented, and demonstrates a clear understanding of his diagnosis, the proposed treatment, and the consequences of his refusal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient counseling and management?
- ASince you are at high risk for stroke but refuse anticoagulation, we should start you on daily aspirin instead.
- BBecause your decision could result in a fatal stroke, I will need to consult psychiatry to formally assess your legal competence.
- CWe can monitor your blood with frequent PT and PTT tests to ensure the medication level remains perfectly safe.
- DYou should know that frequent falls are an absolute contraindication to taking this medication, so your decision is medically correct.
- I understand your fear of falling and bleeding. Let us discuss ways to reduce your fall risk so you might feel safer taking the medication.Answer