A -year-old woman is evaluated in the ambulatory clinic for a routine follow-up. She has a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of , type 2 diabetes mellitus, and osteoarthritis. She also reports a two-day history of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. Current medications include sacubitril-valsartan, metoprolol succinate, spironolactone, metformin, empagliflozin, and over-the-counter ibuprofen. Her blood pressure is mmHg and her pulse is /min. Physical examination shows bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities.
Laboratory studies from today show:
- Serum sodium: mEq/L
- Serum potassium: mEq/L
- Serum creatinine: mg/dL (Baseline months ago: mg/dL)
- Estimated GFR: mL/min/ m
- Urinalysis: Positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites, WBCs/hpf
Which of the following pharmacologic interventions are appropriate for this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Advise discontinuation of over-the-counter ibuprofenAnswer
- Discontinue metformin therapyAnswer
- Discontinue spironolactone therapyAnswer
- DIncrease the dose of sacubitril-valsartan
- EInitiate pioglitazone therapy for glycemic control
- FPrescribe trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for the urinary tract infection