A female patient, aged 64, is evaluated in the ambulatory clinic for ongoing exertional dyspnea. She was diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction two years ago following an anterior myocardial infarction. Current symptoms include shortness of breath when walking up a single flight of stairs, consistent with New York Heart Association class II symptoms. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
Current medications are lisinopril, metoprolol succinate, empagliflozin, and torsemide as needed.
Vital signs show a blood pressure of mm Hg and a heart rate of /min. Physical examination reveals a normal jugular venous pressure, clear lungs, and trace bilateral pedal edema.
Recent laboratory studies:
Sodium: mEq/L
Potassium: mEq/L
Creatinine: mg/dL (baseline mg/dL)
An echocardiogram from one month ago shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of .
The physician plans to transition the patient from her current angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor to sacubitril-valsartan to further reduce the risk of cardiovascular mortality and heart failure hospitalization.
Which of the following is the most appropriate step in implementing this pharmacologic intervention?
- Discontinue lisinopril and initiate sacubitril-valsartan after a 36-hour washout periodAnswer
- BMaintain lisinopril at the current dose and add sacubitril-valsartan to maximize neurohormonal blockade
- CCross-taper the medications by halving the lisinopril dose for three days while starting sacubitril-valsartan
- DMeasure baseline serum B-type natriuretic peptide levels and use them to guide dose titration of the new agent
- EOrder a renal artery duplex ultrasound prior to initiation to rule out bilateral renal artery stenosis