A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to severe, pressure-like substernal chest pain that began 90 minutes ago. The pain radiates to her jaw and is accompanied by profuse diaphoresis and nausea. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. Vital signs are temperature 36.7°C (98.1°F), blood pressure 80/50 mmHg, heart rate 52/min, respiratory rate 16/min, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Physical examination reveals distended jugular veins while sitting at a 45-degree angle. Auscultation of the lungs reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally with no crackles or wheezes. Cardiac auscultation reveals bradycardia with a regular rhythm and no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The patient's extremities are cool to the touch with faint bilateral pedal pulses. A 12-lead electrocardiogram shows 3-mm ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, along with reciprocal ST-segment depressions in leads I and aVL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step to stabilize this patient's hemodynamic status?
- Immediate volume expansion with 0.9% sodium chlorideAnswer
- BSublingual administration of nitroglycerin
- CIntravenous push of furosemide
- DIntravenous administration of metoprolol
- EEmergent transthoracic echocardiography