A 26-year-old female presents to the clinic for a routine wellness and preconception counseling visit. She and her partner plan to start trying to conceive in the next 3 months. Her medical history is significant for severe Crohn's disease, which has been in clinical and endoscopic remission for the past two years on maintenance therapy with infliximab. She has no other medical conditions and takes a daily prenatal vitamin. She recalls never having chickenpox as a child, and a recent occupational health laboratory screening showed negative varicella-zoster virus (VZV) IgG antibodies. Her only previous cervical cancer screening was a normal Pap smear (cervical cytology) at age 23. She received a Tdap booster 2 years ago and an inactivated influenza vaccine 1 month ago. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her preventive care?
- AAdminister the live-attenuated varicella vaccine, perform cervical cytology alone, and advise delaying conception for 4 weeks.
- BPerform cervical cytology with high-risk HPV co-testing, administer the recombinant zoster vaccine, and continue infliximab.
- Perform cervical cytology alone, advise that the varicella vaccine is currently contraindicated, and counsel on strict avoidance of varicella exposures.Answer
- DTemporarily withhold infliximab for 2 weeks, administer the live-attenuated varicella vaccine, and perform cervical cytology alone.
- EAdminister varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) today, perform cervical cytology alone, and advise proceeding with conception.