A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic due to a new-onset tremor and headaches over the past 3 days. He underwent a deceased-donor renal transplantation 8 months ago for end-stage renal disease secondary to hypertensive nephrosclerosis. His maintenance immunosuppression regimen consists of tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and low-dose prednisone. Two weeks ago, he was diagnosed with esophageal candidiasis by his primary care physician and was started on a 14-day course of oral fluconazole. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 168/95 mmHg (baseline 125/80 mmHg), and heart rate is 82/min. Physical examination reveals a fine resting tremor in both hands. The renal allograft is non-tender to palpation.
Laboratory studies show:
Blood urea nitrogen: 42 mg/dL
Serum creatinine: 2.7 mg/dL (baseline 1.3 mg/dL)
Serum potassium: 5.2 mEq/L
Urinalysis: Trace protein, no red blood cells, no white blood cells
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdminister intravenous pulse methylprednisolone
- BAdd amlodipine and continue the current medication regimen
- Measure serum tacrolimus trough level and withhold the next doseAnswer
- DRecommend ibuprofen for headaches and reevaluate in one week
- EPerform an ultrasound-guided percutaneous allograft biopsy