A 54-year-old woman is admitted to an inpatient hospice facility for the management of intractable symptoms secondary to terminal metastatic cervical cancer. Her clinical course is complicated by a malignant bowel obstruction, rendering her completely intolerant to enteral intake. Over the past 48 hours, she has experienced relentless nausea, frequent large-volume emesis, and diffuse abdominal pain. These symptoms have persisted despite maximally tolerated continuous intravenous infusions of hydromorphone, haloperidol, and octreotide, as well as scheduled intravenous dexamethasone. On examination, the patient is cachectic, visibly distressed, crying, and writhing in bed. Her estimated prognosis is hours to a few days. During the bedside evaluation, the patient clearly states, "I cannot take this agony anymore. Please just put me to sleep so I do not have to suffer until the end." The physician assesses that the patient fully understands her condition and the consequences of her request. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate a continuous intravenous infusion of midazolamAnswer
- BEscalate the continuous hydromorphone infusion until the patient is unconscious
- CDischarge the patient to home hospice for ongoing symptom management
- DDefer the request until a judge officially determines the patient's legal competence
- EAdminister sublingual buprenorphine to provide adjunctive, synergistic analgesia