A 62-year-old woman is evaluated in the intensive care unit regarding her anticoagulation management. Seven days ago, she was admitted for a massive pulmonary embolism and was initially started on a continuous unfractionated heparin infusion. Three days into her admission, her platelet count dropped from 240,000/mm³ to 85,000/mm³. A serotonin release assay was positive, confirming heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Heparin was immediately discontinued, and a continuous intravenous argatroban infusion was initiated.
Over the past four days, her clinical condition has stabilized, and her platelet count has recovered to 165,000/mm³. The medical team decided to transition her to oral warfarin for long-term outpatient anticoagulation, and daily warfarin therapy was initiated. Today (day 4 of combined argatroban and warfarin therapy), her vital signs are stable. Laboratory results are as follows:
| Laboratory Parameter | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Platelet count | 175,000/mm³ | 150,000-400,000/mm³ |
| Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) | 68 seconds | 25-35 seconds (Target: 60-80 seconds) |
| International normalized ratio (INR) | 2.4 | 0.8-1.2 |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the monitoring and management of this patient's anticoagulation?
- Continue both argatroban and warfarin until the INR is at least 4.0Answer
- BDiscontinue argatroban and continue daily warfarin dosing
- CDiscontinue warfarin and initiate a low-molecular-weight heparin bridge
- DMeasure antithrombin activity to assess the ongoing efficacy of argatroban
- EWithhold further warfarin doses until the platelet count exceeds 300,000/mm³