A -year-old man is evaluated in the outpatient cardiology clinic for ongoing symptoms of heart failure. He has a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of . He currently reports dyspnea when walking up a single flight of stairs (New York Heart Association class III). His daily medications include sacubitril-valsartan, carvedilol, and empagliflozin. He is adherent to a low-sodium diet. Vital signs show a blood pressure of mmHg and a pulse of /min. Physical examination reveals clear lungs and trace bilateral lower extremity edema. Recent laboratory studies show:
| Laboratory Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Serum sodium | mEq/L |
| Serum potassium | mEq/L |
| Blood urea nitrogen | mg/dL |
| Serum creatinine | mg/dL |
To further reduce mortality and hospitalizations, the physician decides to initiate spironolactone at a dose of mg daily.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate monitoring or management strategy for this patient's new therapeutic regimen?
- Measure serum potassium and creatinine levels in 1 to 2 weeks.Answer
- BCancel the spironolactone prescription, as it is contraindicated with his current medication regimen.
- CDiscontinue empagliflozin prior to initiation to prevent severe drug-induced nephrotoxicity.
- DOrder a right heart catheterization to assess central hemodynamics before adding new agents.
- EObtain a 24-hour urine protein collection to establish a renal baseline prior to therapy.