A -year-old male is evaluated on hospital day for altered mental status. He was originally admitted for severe alcohol withdrawal complicated by generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The patient was successfully stabilized with intravenous lorazepam followed by a loading dose of phenytoin, and he is currently receiving an oral phenytoin maintenance regimen. His medical history is significant for severe alcohol use disorder and decompensated cirrhosis. Today, the nursing staff notes that the patient is increasingly confused, lethargic, and dysarthric. When attempting to walk to the bathroom, he exhibited a wide-based, unsteady gait. Vital signs are within normal limits. Neurologic examination reveals prominent bilateral horizontal nystagmus. Asterixis is absent. Laboratory studies show the following:
| Laboratory Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Albumin | ||
| Total bilirubin | ||
| Ammonia | ||
| Total serum phenytoin |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Measure serum free phenytoin concentrationAnswer
- BIncrease the oral phenytoin maintenance dose
- CObtain a noncontrast computed tomography scan of the head
- DAdminister oral lactulose
- EInitiate concomitant valproic acid therapy