A 54-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. A computed tomography scan of the abdomen reveals acute appendicitis with localized perforation. The surgical team recommends an emergent appendectomy. The patient has a history of bipolar I disorder and is currently exhibiting pressured speech, flight of ideas, and grandiosity. When informed of the need for surgery, she refuses, stating, 'I know you think my appendix has ruptured and that the infection could spread and be fatal. However, I have recently reached a higher vibrational state. My white blood cells are completely under my telepathic control, and I will heal this infection with my mind by tonight.' Her husband is present at the bedside and urges the medical team to proceed with the operation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Obtain informed consent for the surgical procedure from the patient's husband.Answer
- BHonor the patient's refusal because she accurately verbalizes the potential fatal consequences of declining treatment.
- CDelay surgical intervention until a formal psychiatric consultation confirms the patient's lack of capacity.
- DApply to a local judge for a declaration of legal incompetence before providing treatment.
- EAdminister antipsychotic medication and discharge the patient to home if she continues to refuse.