A 58-year-old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit with septic shock secondary to a complicated intra-abdominal infection. Her past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Physical examination reveals generalized edema (anasarca) with significant third-spacing of fluids. The patient is started on a novel intravenous hydrophilic antimicrobial agent that is cleared exclusively by glomerular filtration. The treating physician wants to achieve the same initial peak serum concentration and the same average steady-state concentration as typically targeted in a healthy adult without comorbidities. Based on the patient's current physiologic state, which of the following dosing adjustments is most appropriate compared to the standard adult regimen?
- Administer a higher loading dose and a lower maintenance doseAnswer
- BAdminister an unchanged loading dose and a lower maintenance dose
- CAdminister a higher loading dose and a higher maintenance dose
- DAdminister a lower loading dose and a lower maintenance dose
- EAdminister a lower loading dose and a higher maintenance dose