A 34-year-old man presents to the clinic for a routine medical evaluation. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. He reports experiencing occasional muscle weakness and cramps in his legs over the past three months. His blood pressure is on two separate readings during the visit. His heart rate is , and his body mass index is . Physical examination reveals no abdominal bruits, and peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. Initial laboratory studies show the following:
| Laboratory Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Sodium | ||
| Potassium | ||
| Chloride | ||
| Bicarbonate | ||
| Creatinine |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?
- Measurement of plasma aldosterone concentration and plasma renin activityAnswer
- BComputed tomography (CT) of the abdomen
- CIntravenous saline infusion test
- DRenal artery duplex ultrasonography
- E24-hour urine collection for fractionated metanephrines
Answer
Measurement of plasma aldosterone concentration and plasma renin activity is the correct first step to screen for primary hyperaldosteronism.
The correct sequence for diagnosing primary hyperaldosteronism begins with demonstrating autonomous hormone production. The first, least invasive, and most sensitive step is measuring the morning plasma aldosterone concentration (PAC) and plasma renin activity (PRA). An elevated ratio indicates primary hyperaldosteronism (where aldosterone suppresses renin). Only after this screening is positive should a physician proceed to confirmatory testing (e.g., oral sodium loading, IV saline infusion) and subsequently to imaging (CT of the abdomen).
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
The diagnostic sequencing for primary hyperaldosteronism requires initial biochemical screening (PAC/PRA ratio), followed by biochemical confirmation (e.g., saline suppression test), and finally localization with cross-sectional imaging (CT abdomen).