A 68-year-old woman presents to the clinic for an annual health maintenance examination. She feels well and has no new symptoms. Her past medical history is notable for a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy at age 62. The surgical pathology at that time revealed cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 3 with negative surgical margins. She has not undergone any further gynecologic evaluation since her postoperative period. She has never smoked and consumes alcohol occasionally. Her family history is noncontributory. Screening mammography performed 1 year ago was negative for malignancy. A screening colonoscopy and a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan performed at age 65 were both normal. Vital signs and physical examination today are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in preventive screening for this patient?
- Cytology and high-risk human papillomavirus testing of the vaginal cuffAnswer
- BReassurance that no routine cancer screening is currently indicated
- CAnnual fecal immunochemical testing
- DRepeat dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scan
- ESerum CA-125 measurement and pelvic ultrasonography