A 59-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic with excruciating pain and swelling in his right great toe that began abruptly last night. He reports that the pain is so severe he cannot tolerate even the weight of a bedsheet on his foot. Medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 25%, type 2 diabetes mellitus with a recent hemoglobin A1c of 9.2%, stage 4 chronic kidney disease with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 22 mL/min/1.73 m², and a bleeding gastric ulcer that was treated endoscopically one month ago. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 118/75 mmHg, and heart rate 82/min. Examination reveals a markedly erythematous, swollen, and exquisitely tender right first metatarsophalangeal joint. Arthrocentesis yields synovial fluid with a leukocyte count of 45,000/mm³ and negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's acute symptoms?
- AOral indomethacin
- BOral colchicine
- Intra-articular triamcinoloneAnswer
- DOral prednisone
- EOral allopurinol