A 78-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her family due to the sudden onset of severe, relentless abdominal pain that began 2 hours ago. She also reports one episode of non-bloody emesis. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation. She was prescribed apixaban but admits she stopped taking it two weeks ago due to financial difficulties. Current vital signs include a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 145/85 mm Hg, pulse of 118/min and irregularly irregular, and respiratory rate of 22/min. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen. There is mild, diffuse tenderness to palpation, but no guarding, rebound tenderness, or rigidity. Bowel sounds are diminished. Stool guaiac test is negative. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following studies represent the most appropriate initial concurrent diagnostic workup for this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Computed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvisAnswer
- Serum lactate concentrationAnswer
- CConventional catheter-directed mesenteric angiography
- DMagnetic resonance angiography of the abdomen
- EColonoscopy